• 15 Posts
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Joined 1 year ago
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Cake day: June 19th, 2023

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  • bleistift2@feddit.detolinuxmemes@lemmy.worldBloat
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    5 months ago

    Every driver you could possibly need for any hardware in the last 20 years? This is a live CD and is expected to just work no matter what you’re running it on.

    Edit: Also, of course, every program you might need to usefully test-drive a distro, like office apps, media players, image viewers, browser, email client, and a myriad more. Now that I’ve said it I find 6GB remarkably small.






  • I’m not sure which meaning of ‘should be able to be voided’ you’re using. Do you mean ‘Why do think it’s legal to void it’ or ‘Why do you think it’s legitimate to be able to void it’?

    In the first case: My employment contract does exactly this. It’s become kind of a default clause in contracts. Researching this you’ll find a lot of websites (in German) that say that the clause is ‘abdingbar’ (which I translated as ‘voidable’).

    In the second case: I didn’t say I thought it legitimate, and I don’t have a strong opinion on this.


  • I mean dude you’re defending Meta, arguably the single worst company when it comes to respecting user data and privacy

    That’s argumentum ad hominem. If the law means what you think it means, it applies whether we’re talking about EvilCorp or SaveTheWhaleChildrenBeeFluff.

    Also recall the very first thing I said on this topic:

    I’m all for GDPR and really enjoy its protections, but I don’t understand this one.

    I’m playing devil’s advocate in order to gain insight, because I have no clue how this board reaches its conclusions.


  • I can’t find the word ‘unbiased’ in the GDPR. All it asks for is consent:

    1. Processing shall be lawful only if and to the extent that at least one of the following applies:

    a) the data subject has given consent to the processing of his or her personal data for one or more specific purposes;

    In the case of facebook, the user gives consent for the purpose of being served targeted advertising in exchange for the provided service.

    [Edit:] Found something:

    When assessing whether consent is freely given, utmost account shall be taken of whether, […] the provision of a service, is conditional on consent to the processing of personal data that is not necessary for the performance of that contract. Article 7, paragraph 4 GDPR

    So the question of whether the pay-or-consent model is legal hinges upon the question of whether payment (in any form) is “necessary for the performance of that contract“.


  • Are there any rights you think should supersede contracts? If so, how do you draw the line between rights that do and don’t?

    (I’ll answer your question in a comment side-chain, just because you asked.)

    Germans have the right to continued wage payments if they need to take care of family members (§616 BGB). However, that right can be voided in the employment contract.

    (§618 BGB) essentially states that the work environment must be reasonably safe. This cannot be voided by contract, as is codified in (§619 BGB).

    These are just instances. I do not know any general rules for the precedence of contracts over the law or vice versa.